Gulf Oil Spill--recap, blame, etc

[Shotgun!]

The fissure is the result of the first gaseous bubble,the one that officially overwhelmed the rig. That bubble's volume being vacated very quickly let the seafloor collapse a bit (over a large area) and that "crust" was then torn apart by not having anything "holding it up". Does that make sense? I'm horrible at articulating anything useful in writing. I think I'm on the wrong side to be typing to much about this anyway.

This kind of leak has only happened once before, that I know of. That was in Russia, in the 1970s. Their answer was to deploy a nuclear weapon. It worked for them, and I heard that BP had been extending feelers though "back channels" to explore that option in the first week of June. I think it was abandoned a week or two later. I should explain the the Russian event differed in that it was; 1)on land 2)I believe it was without a "secondary" breech (the fissure) 3)a government controlled well, so it actually had to be taken care of, and was, in an effective manner. This kind of makes it sound like it's not really the same deal at all, but the logistics aren't too different. The Russian well was drilled to the same depth (slightly deeper even), which was into a 75,000psi+ abiotic oil field which overwhelmed all safety protocols.